Does a "Deed in Lieu of foreclosure" trigger a right of first refusal to purchase that a tenant has?

The paragraph addressing this in the Right of First Refusal document is as follows:
"Notwithstanding the above, this right of first refusal is intended to apply only to voluntary transfers involving third party transferees. This right of first refusal shall not, therefore, apply: where the Premises are taken by eminent domain or sold under threat of condemnation, to intra-family or intra-ownership transfers, to transfers by Lessor to a trust created by Lessor, or, if Lessor is a trust, to transfers to a trust beneficiary."
In Selling Property - Asked by Drew C. - Nov 4, 2009
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Gregory G.
San Francisco, CA

In certain instances it can, though they aren't always "voluntary."
Gregory Garver - Commercial Real Estate Broker
Broker License# 01716531

Nov 6, 2009
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Chris S.
Coeur D'alene, ID

No. But when the new owner goes to sell the property, you should still have the first right.

Jan 22, 2010
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